There are those who claim Jesus never spoke on homosexuality, thus there is no authority to claim such behavior as sinful. If you were to point out Romans 1:26-27 or 1 Corinthians 6:9-11, they would claim these are not the words of Jesus and therefore not binding. This implies that, if Jesus didn't speak it in the gospels, it isn't authoritative. Did Jesus never say anything bout such immorality? Are only the gospels authoritative Scripture? Can we consider all of Scripture the word of God and Christ?

First, while Jesus never used the term homosexual, He does use the term fornication. "And He said, 'What comes out of a man, that defiles a man. For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lewdness, an evil eye, blasphemy, pride, foolishness. All these evil things come from within and defile a man.'"  (Mark 7:20-23, NKJV). The term fornication refers to any sexual immorality, including that before marriage, adultery, bestiality, and homosexuality. By using this word, Jesus in one term referred to all sexual immorality as sinful, that which defiles one spiritually. In Matthew 19:5, when the Pharisees raised the issue of divorce to Jesus, our Lord quoted Genesis 2:24 as the pattern God desires in relationships, a man joined to a woman in marriage, and that relationship to endure (Matthew 19:7). He then states only fornication allows the innocent party to divorce and remarry (Matthew 19:9). In this use of fornication, Jesus shows sexuality outside of the marriage relationship of a man and woman, whether heterosexual or homosexual, to be unacceptable behavior before God. To assert, then, that Jesus never spoke on homosexuality is incorrect. The choice of words He used condemns it. 

But are only the terms in "red letters" in the New Testament Scripture? What about the rest of it? Paul said all Scripture is inspired of God, originating from God, as did Peter (2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:20-21). Peter called Paul's writings "Scripture"  (2 Peter 3:15-16). Paul affirmed this as well, as he reminded the Corinthians the things he spoke were the "commandments of the Lord" (1 Corinthians 14:37). What is written in all the New Testament by inspiration is truly the word of Christ, not just the gospel accounts. Even Jesus said, "However, when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth...." (John 16:13).

To argue since Jesus never used the specific word homosexual, He must condone it's practice, is incorrect. Homosexuality is fornication, and Jesus clearly spoke against that. We also understand all of Scripture to affirm itself as the word of God, the word of Christ, that given by inspiration of the Holy Spirit. How do you respond to all of God's word?

Robert Johnson
Longview, TX